Embryology Test (Part 1)

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1) During formation of the mid, fore and hind guts the initial gut tube undegoes rotation. Which of the following is correct regarding rotation of the midgut during this process?

A) rotates 90 degrees clockwise

B) rotates 130 degrees anticlockwise

C) rotates 180 degrees clockwise

D) rotates 270 degrees anticlockwise

E) rotates 270 degrees clockwise

2) During oogenesis which cell type has the greatest number of chromatids?A) Neural crest of Ectoderm

A) Oogonium

B) Primary Oocyte

C) Secondary Oocyte

D) Ootid

E) Ovum

3) From which germ layer does the kidney develop?

A) Endoderm

B) Ectoderm

C) Intermediate mesoderm

D) paraxial mesoderm

E) lateral plate mesoderm

4) Which pharyngeal arch gives rise to no muscular or skeletal structures?

A) 1st

B) 2nd

C) 3rd

D) 4th

E) 5th

5) What is the innervation to the sigmoid colon?

A) T5‐T9

B) T10/11

C) T12/L1

D) L1/L2

E) L2/L3

6) What is the principle arterial supply to the ascending colon? A) Neural crest of Ectoderm

A) Superior Rectal

B) Renal

C) Coeliac Trunk

D) Inferior Mesenteric

E) Superior Mesenteric

7) The second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which of the following structures?

A) Vagus Nerve

B) Thyroid cardilage

C) Muscles of facial expression

D) Intrinsic muscles of larynx

E) Trigeminal Nerve

8) From which germ layer does the myenteric plexus of the GI tract developed: A) 6 weeks gestation

A) Neural crest of Ectoderm

B) Neural tube of Ectoderm

C) Mesoderm

D) Endoderm

E) None of the above

9) From what does the blastocyst hatch?

A) Cumulus oophorus

B) Corona radiata

C) Perivitelline space

D) Trophectoderm

E) Zona Pellucida

10) The 6th pharyngeal arch gives rise to which of the following?

A) Cranial Nerve VI

B) Muscles of facial expression

C) Muscles of mastication

D) Intrinsic muscles of larynx

E) Facial nerve

11) What is the principle arterial supply to the jejunum?

A) Superior Mesenteric

B) Inferior Mesenteric

C) Coeliac Trunk

D) Splenic

E) Inferior rectal

12) Somites are derived from which germ layer?

A) Endoderm

B) Ectoderm

C) Intermediate Mesoderm

D) Paraaxial Mesoderm

E) Lateral Plate Mesoderm

13) The thyroid cartilage and cricothyroid muscle develop from which pharyngeal arch?

A) 1st

B) 2nd

C) 3rd

D) 4th

E) 6th

14) Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?

A) 1st

B) 2nd

C) 3rd

D) 4th

E) 6th

15) From which germ layer does the Pancreas develop? A) 6 weeks gestation

A) Neural tube of Ectoderm

B) Neural crest of Ectoderm

C) Intermediate Mesoderm

D) Coelom

E) Endoderm

16) The third pharyngeal arch gives rise to which of the following structures?

A) Thrigeminal Nerve

B) Glossopharyngeal nerve

C) Facial nerve

D) Vagus nerve

E) Muscles of mastication

17) Approximately how many oocytes are present in the ovaries at birth?

A) 1,000

B) 10,000

C) 100,000

D) 1 million

E) 10 million

18) The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

A) 1st

B) 2nd

C) 3rd

D) 4th

E) 6th

19) What process would you expect a secondary spermatocyte to undergo during spermatogenesis?

A) 1st Meiotc Division

B) 2nd Meiotc Division

C) 1st Mitotic Division

D) 2nd Mitotic Division

E) Differentiation

20) From which germ layer does the Pituitary develop?

A) Endoderm

B) Ectoderm

C) Intermediate mesoderm

D) Paraxial mesoderm

E) Lateral plate mesoderm

21) The 7th cranial nerve develops from which pharyngeal arch?

A) 1st

B) 2nd

C) 3rd

D) 4th

E) 5th

22) Which of the following structures develop from the mesodermal somites?

A) Epidermis

B) Neural Crest

C) Liver

D) Pancreas

E) Ribs

23) What is the innervation to the 4th part of duodenum?

A) T5‐T9

B) T10/T11

C) T12/L1

D) L2/L3

E) L3/L4

24) At what gestation does physiological gut herniation occur?

A) 1 week

B) 3 weeks

C) 5 weeks

D) 8 weeks

E) 12 weeks

25) What process changes a spermatogonium into a primary spermatocyte?

A) Meiosis 1

B) Meiosis 2

C) Differentiation

D) Maturation

E) Spermosis

26) Which of the following is a feature of intestinal malrotation?

A) Ladd's bands

B) Meckel's diverticulum

C) Angelman syndrome

D) Cecal Diverticula

E) Fibrous band of Champenois

27) When does Oocytogenesis complete?

A) 6 weeks gestation

B) 18 weeks gestation

C) Birth

D) Puberty

E) Ovulation

28) A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following?

A) Crossed fused ectopia

B) Abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts

C) PKD‐1 gene mutations

D) Mullerian agenesis

E) None of the above

29) How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form?

A) 1 day

B) 2 days

C) 3 days

D) 4 days

E) 5 days

30) The subclavian artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

A) 1st

B) 2nd

C) 3rd

D) 5th

E) 4th

31) How many days after fertilisation does the morula form?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 9

D) 4

E) 6

32) The round ligament develops from which structure?

A) Gubernaculum

B) Urachus

C) Allantois

D) Medial umbilical ligament

E) Median umbilical ligament

33) Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo?

A) 1st

B) 2nd

C) 3rd

D) 4th

E) 6th

34) At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium?

A) 2‐4 weeks gestation

B) 10‐16 weeks gestation

C) 18‐26 weeks gestation

D) 24‐30 weeks gestation

E) 34‐38 weeks gestation

35) The placenta develops from which structure?A) 6 weeks gestation

A) Blastocoele

B) Trophoblast

C) Embryoblast

D) Inner cell mass

E) Zona pellucid

36) From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop? A) Neural crest of Ectoderm

A) Endoderm

B) Ectoderm

C) Lateal Plate Mesoderm

D) Paraxial Mesoderm

E) Intermediate

37) How many days after fertilisation does implantation typically occur?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 5

D) 8

E) 12

38) Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?

A) 1st Meiotic Division

B) 2nd Meiotic Division

C) 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions

D) Differentiation

E) Growth and maturation

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