Mock test-2(SBA+EMQ)Module part-2

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1) 34 weeks SROM HIV positive not in labour , on HAART viral load <43

A) antibiotics and conservative treatment

B) emergency caesarean section

C) at once IOL

D) give injection dexa, antibiotics and induction of labour after 24 hours

E) Expectant management

Of the following statements about hyperthyroidism in pregnancy, select the correct
one:

A) During pregnancy, treatment should be aimed at keeping the thyroid hormones at the lower limit of normal range.

B) Fetal hypothyroidism is a common complication in these patients.

C) Pregnancy worsens thyroid status especially in the third trimester.

D) Propylthiouracil and carbimazole can be safely continued in pregnancy.

E) Propylthiouracil and carbimazole do not cross the placenta.

A 29-year-old woman attends antenatal clinic at 28 weeks of gestation. She
gives a history of syphilis 2 years ago. She has recently been diagnosed with
late syphilis and now advised to have a cerebrospinal fuid (CSF) examination
test.
Te indications for CSF examination include all of the following except for
which one?

A) Ophthalmic signs and symptoms

B) Syphilis treatment failure

C) Neurological signs and symptoms Correct

D) Cardiovascular signs and symptoms

E) HIV infection with late latent syphilis

A 38-year-old primigravida at 36 weeks’ gestation with dichorionic diamniotic
twin pregnancy was diagnosed with acute fatty liver of pregnancy. She was
stabilised and delivered by caesarean section.
What is the risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies?

A) 5%

B) 10%

C) 15%

D) 20%

E) 25%

A nulliparous woman had a thrombophilia screen requested by her GP
because of the family history of VTE in her mother and sister.
Which one of the thrombophilia defects is associated with the highest risk
of VTE in pregnancy?

A) Heterozygosity for factor V Leiden

B) Antithrombin defciency

C) Homozygous factor V Leiden

D) Protein C defciency

E) Antithrombin defciency

A 36-year-old woman with known hypothyroidism has been taking
levothyroxine 100 micrograms once a day. Her most recent thyroid function
tests performed 3 months ago were normal with a thyrotropin (TSH) of
2.5 mU/L. She has come to the early pregnancy unit with abdominal pain and
a positive pregnancy test. Transvaginal ultrasound confrmed an intrauterine
pregnancy.
How would you advise with regards to her levothyroxine dosage?

A) Decrease dose to 75 micrograms per day

B) Decrease dose to 50 micrograms per day

C) No change required

D) Increase dose to 125 micrograms per day

E) Increase dose to 125 micrograms per day

14) In MCDA twin pregnancy monitoring to detect TTTS starts at which week.

A) 12

B) 24

C) 16

D) 28

E) 30

A 20-year-old woman was brought to A&E with a history of sexual assault
4 days ago. Te perpetrator had forced her to have vaginal intercourse (used
condom) and also performed digital anal penetration. You are the doctor in
A&E who is now collecting the samples for forensic medical examination.
All the following samples are indicated for forensic medical examination
except which one?

A) Low vaginal swab

B) Vulval swab

C) Peri-anal swab

D) High vaginal swab

E) Anal canal swab

17) A 23-year-old woman presents with ongoing pruritus that has worsened from

12 weeks of pregnancy.

Her blood results are:

Albumin 32 g/l

Serum alkaline phosphatase 320 U/l

Serum ALT 35 U/l

Serum bilirubin 20 μmol/l

γ-Glutamyl transferase 40 U/l

Anti-nuclear antibodies Negative

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies Positive

Anti-smooth muscle antibodies Negative

Lupus anticoagulant Negative

A) <50 human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) RNA copies/ml

B) 50–399 HIV RNA copies/ml

C) ≥400 HIV RNA copies/ml

D) >1000 HIV RNA copies/ml

E) >100,000 HIV RNA copies/ml F CD4 cell count <350 cells/μl

F) Hepatitis E

G) Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

H) Primary biliary cholangitis

What percentage of the cardiac output is received by the gravid uterus at term
pregnancy?

A) 2 %

B) 5 %

C) 10 %

D) 20 %

E) 25 %

21)

Te following conditions except one manifest only when the individual is
homozygous for the mutant allele. Which one is the exception?

A) Galactosaemia

B) G6PD defciency

C) Glycogen storage diseases

D) Homocystinuria Correct

E) Marfan syndrome

A 40-year-old woman has been trying to conceive for the last 2 years but has
not been successful. She had one failed IVF cycle and is going for a second
cycle of IVF treatment.
Which of the following will not reduce the success rate of IVF
pregnancy?

A) Rising age

B) Previous unsuccessful IVF cycle

C) Body mass index (BMI) 35

D) Consumption of less than one unit of alcohol twice a week

E) Smoking

23) Covid 19 in pregnancy guideline recommends a Fetal Growth Scan in?

A) .Mild symptomatic patients while admission

B) Severe symptomatic patient ,14 days after recovery

C) .Moderate symptomatic patient when found positive

D) . Severe symptomatic

E) Moderate to severe symptomatic patient 21 days after discharge

24) 30 years old pregnant lady history of schizophrenia on olanzapine, what could be the side effect of Olanzapine on pregnancy

A) DM

B) Hypertension

C) Miscarriages

D) small for gestational age

E) Preterm delivery

Which of the following statements best describes the role of serum ferritin in
pregnancy?

A) An unstable glycoprotein involved in iron transport.

B) An acute phase reactant and levels rise in infection.

C) Best test parameter to assess any type of anaemia in pregnancy.

D) Ferritin levels steadily reduce as pregnancy progresses

E) Treatment should be started when ferritin levels are below 50 μg/l.

A 30-year-old woman with a previous history of caesarean section and
multiple uterine fbroids had a repeat elective caesarean section due to breech
presentation. She had massive postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) secondary to
uterine atony with an estimated blood loss of 3 L. She is RhD-negative and had
transfusion of the group specifc packed red cells, reinfusion of the salvaged
red cells from the cell saver and also fresh frozen plasma (FFP), cryoprecipitate
and platelets. Te cord blood group was confrmed as RhD-negative.
Anti-D prophylaxis should be administered in which one of the options,
if she had the following blood products transfused?

A) RhD-positive FFP

B) RhD-positive cryoprecipitate

C) RhD-positive platelets

D) RhD-negative packed RBC

E) Reinfusion of the salvaged red cells

27)

A para 4 woman with all previous normal vaginal deliveries and a big baby has
just delivered spontaneously. She has consented for the active management of
the third stage of labour and oxytocics were given at birth.
Active management of the third stage of labour reduces the risk of PPH by
what proportion?

A) 20%

B) 30%

C) 40%

D) 50%

E) 60%

29) Birth in water pool is avoided in

A) Asymptomatic Covid19

B) Low- risk patient

C) Symptomatic covid 19

D) Asymptomatic covid willing for waterbirth

E) Non covid

31) An HIV-positive woman presents with spontaneous rupture of membranes at

term. What is the threshold parameter to recommend induction of labour

A) <50 human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) RNA copies/ml

B) 50–399 HIV RNA copies/ml

C) ≥400 HIV RNA copies/ml

D) >1000 HIV RNA copies/ml

E) >100,000 HIV RNA copies/ml F CD4 cell count <350 cells/μl

F) Hepatitis E

G) Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

H) Primary biliary cholangitis

A 25-year-old woman attends the emergency department with a history of
lef-sided severe abdominal pain for the last 24 hours. A clinical diagnosis of
suspected ovarian torsion is made as there is marked tenderness as well as
guarding on abdominal palpation. An ultrasound scan reveals a large ovarian
dermoid cyst on the lef side (9 × 7 × 8 cm) with absent blood fow. Bloods
reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein. A laparotomy is performed
in view of clinical suspicions of ovarian torsion.
Intra-operative fndings reveal the following:
• Normal right ovary
• Torsion of ovarian pedicle × 3 loops (lef ovary)
• Lef ovary appears non-viable
• Normal fallopian tubes and uterus
• Normal rest of pelvis and abdomen with no ascites
Her surgical management includes which one of the following?

A) Lef salpingo-oophorectomy

B) Lef salpingectomy and lef ovarian cystectomy

C) Lef ovarian cystectomy

D) Lef-sided oophorectomy

E) Lef-sided oophorectomy and peritoneal washings

33)

You are seeing a 30-year-old nulliparous woman in the antenatal clinic at
12 weeks’ gestation with a family history of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
She is a known carrier and keen to know the likelihood of her children being
afected.
What is the likelihood of her children being afected?

A) One in two chances of being afected

B) One in four chances of being afected

C) One in two chances of her sons being afected

D) One in four chances of her sons being afected

E) All daughters are afected

35) A 34-year-old woman starts to develop severe pruritus on her limbs and trunk

at 34 weeks of gestation. On examination, there is evidence of scratching but

no rash. She is afebrile and her urine is dark. LFTs are abnormal with an alanine

transaminase (ALT) level of 451 U/l with normal bile acids. Standard liver

serological screening is normal.

A) <50 human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) RNA copies/ml

B) 50–399 HIV RNA copies/ml

C) ≥400 HIV RNA copies/ml

D) >1000 HIV RNA copies/ml

E) >100,000 HIV RNA copies/ml F CD4 cell count <350 cells/μl

F) Hepatitis E

G) Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

H) Primary biliary cholangitis

A 37-year-old woman, para 1 is referred to gynaecology clinic as a 2 weeks’
wait in view of abdominal swelling and pelvic pressure. An ultrasound scan
attached with GP referral shows a large uterus (uterine size of 20 × 10 cm)
with multiple fbroids. She wishes to have uterine artery embolisation.
Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication for uterine
artery embolisation?

A) Asymptomatic fbroids in women <40 years of age

B) Infection of the genital tract 3 weeks ago

C) Pedunculated fbroid

D) Sixteen weeks’ pregnancy

E) Where a patient would refuse a hysterectomy under any circumstances due to social or cultural reasons even afer appropriate counselling

Ms XY is a primigravida who is 30 weeks pregnant. She presents to A + E with
acute onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. She has just travelled via a long
haul fl ight (12 h) to the UK.
Which of the following investigations is not appropriate in the investigation of a
suspected pulmonary embolus in pregnancy?

A) CTPA

B) CXR

C) D-Dimer

D) ECG

E) V/Q Scan

45)

A 30-year-old para 1 woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 38 and family
history of diabetes attends antenatal clinic at 28 weeks’ gestation. She was
diagnosed with gestational diabetes 2 days ago when her glucose tolerance
test was abnormal with a fasting glucose of 7.0 mmol/L and a 2-hour plasma
glucose of 8.9 mmol/L.
What is the most appropriate intervention in managing her gestational
diabetes?

A) Trial of changes in diet and exercise

B) Diet + exercise + metformin

C) Diet + exercise + glibenclamide

D) Diet + exercise + insulin ± metformin

E) Diet + exercise + insulin ± glibenclamide

Which antibiotics should be given to prevent early onset neonatal GBS disease to
women who have accepted intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) and are mildly allergic
to benzylpenicillin?

A) Vancomycin

B) Cefuroxime

C) .Erythromycin

D) Gentamicin

E) Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

48)

A 43-year-old woman gravid 1 para 0 is referred to the antenatal clinic for
booking. Her dating scan at 13 weeks shows increased nuchal thickness.
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) results show trisomy 21.
Which one of the following is not associated with Down syndrome?

A) Clinodactyly of the little fnger (ffh fnger) Correct

B) Congenital deafness

C) Non-disjunction

D) Single palmar crease x

E) Atrial septal defect

52) One of the following is a recognised cause of gynaecomastia:

A) Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome

B) Down syndrome

C) Klinefelter syndrome

D) Lynch syndrome

E) Turner syndrome

54) Possible sources of error in noninvasive prenatal testing for fetal aneuploidies include:

A) Late gestational age

B) Low maternal BMI

C) Maternal heart disease

D) Maternal malignancies

E) Placenta previa

Ms XY is 38-year-old G5P4 with a BMI of 32. She presents to the consultant-led
ANC at 28 weeks with a fetal growth scan, which is normal. She is otherwise fi t and
well. She takes routine pregnancy supplements.
In terms of VTE prophylaxis, which of the following is best suited to her?

A) LMWH from 28 weeks + postpartum LMWH for 10 days

B) LMWH from 28 weeks + postpartum LMWH for 6 weeks

C) No VTE prophylaxis

D) Postpartum LMWH for 10 days

E) TEDS in the antenatal period

58)

A 45-year-old woman presents to GP with abdominal bloating. A blood test
was performed for Ca125 which measures 1000 units/mL. She is referred to
rapid access clinic (gynaecological oncology). A CT scan (chest, abdomen and
pelvis) reveals a large abdominal mass possibly flled with mucin. Te fndings
are suggestive of mucinous carcinoma. She undergoes staging laparotomy
which reveals pre-operative rupture of the cyst with ascites and mucinous
substance flling the abdomen. Te histology is reported as mucinous
carcinoma of the lef ovary with rupture of cyst.
What is the International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO)
stage in her case?

A) IB

B) IC1

C) IC2

D) IC3

E) IIA

62)

A para 1 woman at 33 weeks’ gestation presents with preterm premature
rupture of membranes (PPROM). She had a recurrence of genital herpes
3 days ago. On examination PPROM was confrmed, and the genital lesions
are healing.
What is the most appropriate management option?

A) Steroids + erythromycin + oral acyclovir + delivery by caesarean section at 34 weeks

B) Steroids + erythromycin + intravenous acyclovir + delivery by caesarean section at 34 weeks

C) Steroids + erythromycin + oral acyclovir + consider induction of labour at 34 weeks

D) Steroids + erythromycin + intravenous acyclovir + consider induction of labour at 34 weeks

E) Steroids + erythromycin + oral acyclovir + delivery by caesarean section afer completion of the two steroid injections

64)

A 48-year-old woman undergoes laparoscopic hysterectomy and bilateral
salpingo-oophorectomy, pelvic lymphadenectomy, peritoneal washings and
bowel adhesiolysis for International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics
(FIGO) stage Ib, high-grade serous endometrial cancer. Her blood loss was
1000 mL. A peritoneal pelvic drain is inserted. Her observations are stable and
she is apyrexial. Her abdominal drain is straw-coloured fuid and is 500 mL on
day 2. Her haemoglobin (HB) is 9 gm% and serum creatinine is 75. Drain fuid
creatinine is reported as 90.
What is the diagnosis in her case?

A) Urinoma

B) Ureteric injury

C) Ascites Correct

D) Lymphocele

E) Pelvic collection

65) Placenta low-lying at 20wk chances to shift in upper segment

A) 50%

B) 60%

C) 70%

D) 80%

E) 90%

A 30-year-old para 5 woman at 36 weeks’ gestation was brought in by
ambulance with abdominal pain and heavy per vaginal bleeding. Her pulse
was 120 bpm, blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, respiration rate 20/min, O2
saturation 96% on room air, and temperature 37°C. Te placenta was reported
as anterior high on previous scans. On examination abdomen is tender and
the CTG recording is abnormal. She does not understand or speak English, but
her sister who speaks English was with her. Immediate resuscitation measures
were commenced and a decision for an emergency caesarean section was made
by yourself.
What is the most appropriate statement in this clinical situation with
regards to obtaining consent from this non-English speaker?

A) A family member is allowed to give consent on behalf of a patient for caesarean section, as she does not understand English

B) It is acceptable to obtain consent with the help of a family member or friend who speaks the same language for interpretation

C) You should obtain consent using a professional interpreter prior to the caesarean section

D) It is acceptable to use hospital employees as interpreters in day-to-day care

E) You can proceed with emergency caesarean section without consent in the best interests of the patient

67)

For gestational age assessment of the fetus in early pregnancy, it is recommended
that crown rump length be used for dating. Once the CRL exceeds 84 mm, it is rec-
ommended that dating be based on measurement of:

A) Abdominal circumference

B) Femur length Correct

C) Head circumference

D) Humerus length

E) Transcerebellar diameter

69) A 27-year-old woman is reviewed in the antenatal clinic at 36 weeks in her

first pregnancy. She has HIV and is on highly active antiretroviral treatment

(HAART). What is the threshold parameter for which delivery by elective

caesarean section would be recommended?

A) <50 human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) RNA copies/ml

B) 50–399 HIV RNA copies/ml

C) ≥400 HIV RNA copies/ml

D) >1000 HIV RNA copies/ml

E) >100,000 HIV RNA copies/ml F CD4 cell count <350 cells/μl

F) Hepatitis E

G) Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

H) Primary biliary cholangitis

70) Which vaccine to give in pregnancy?

A) Tetanus and influenza

B) Influenze and hepB

C) Measles and influenza

D) whooping cough vaccine with Tetanus

E) Rubella

A 28-year-old teacher was given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin G (VZIG)
afer a signifcant exposure to chickenpox at 24 weeks’ gestation, as she was
found to be seronegative on her booking bloods.
How long should she be considered potentially infectious afer exposure to
chickenpox?

A) 8–20 days

B) 8–22 days

C) 8–24 days

D) 8–24 days

E) 8–28 days

A 20-year-old primigravida with 30 weeks gestation has presented in the casualty
with preterm labour pains. She has history of productive cough and fever since 15
days. She has a BMI of 19 and was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 20 weeks.
She has had a poor gestational weight gain. It is true to say that in this condition:

A) About 5 % of women have pre-existing or gestational diabetes.

B) FEV1 < 80 % is an absolute contraindication to pregnancy.

C) If the partner does not carry the mutation, then risk of having affected child is around 1:250.

D) Premature delivery is seen in more than half of pregnancies.

E) Women are usually infertile.

A 35-year-old para 1 woman is in established labour with strong, regular
contractions and a cervical dilatation of 4 cm. She is requesting stronger pain
relief as Entonox is making her feel sick and is not very efective. She does
not want an epidural and is asking about the alternative options. You have
counselled her about the opioid analgesics in detail.
Which one of the following statements is true with regards to the opioid
analgesics?

A) Pethidine intramuscular injection is a better analgesic than diamorphine injection

B) Diamorphine injection has shown to reduce the duration of labour

C) Remifentanil patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) is superior to epidural analgesia

D) Remifentanil PCA is contraindicated if pethidine was given previously within 6 hours

E) Remifentanil PCA needs continuous monitoring of maternal oxygen saturations

76)

A 20-year-old woman attends the sexual health clinic with symptoms of
frothy, yellow vaginal discharge and associated lower abdominal pain. Te
organism can be seen when a drop of saline is added to the vaginal discharge
placed on the slide.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Chlamydia Correct

B) Trichomonas vaginalis

C) Gonorrhoea

D) Candida albicans

E) Syphilis

78)

A nulliparous woman at 40 + 2 gestation was admitted in spontaneous labour
and progressed satisfactorily to full dilatation 2 hours ago. On reassessment
there is no change in the descent with the vertex at −1 station, the position is
occipitoanterior with absent membranes, no caput or moulding. Epidural is
efective, contractions are three in 10 minutes and the CTG is normal.
What is the most appropriate management?

A) Caesarean section

B) Start active pushing Correct

C) Start Syntocinon augmentation

D) Transfer to theatre for delivery

E) Allow an hour for passive second stage

80)

Which one of the following statements is correct in assessing statistical
correlations?

A) Correlation coefcient tests the association between two variables

B) It is a measure of the curvilinear association between the variables

C) If Pearson’s r is 0, there is a negative correlation

D) Pearson’s correlation depends on all the data of the observations being normal distributed

E) A statistically signifcant association between two variables means it is causal

81) An HIV-positive woman who presented late for antenatal care at 34 weeks of

gestation is now in labour. What would be the threshold parameter for offering

intrapartum intravenous zidovudine therapy?

A) <50 human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) RNA copies/ml

B) 50–399 HIV RNA copies/ml

C) ≥400 HIV RNA copies/ml

D) >1000 HIV RNA copies/ml

E) >100,000 HIV RNA copies/ml F CD4 cell count <350 cells/μl

F) Hepatitis E

G) Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

H) Primary biliary cholangitis

A 48-year-old woman undergoes laparoscopic hysterectomy and bilateral
salpingo-oophorectomy, pelvic lymphadenectomy, bowel and pelvic
adhesiolysis and peritoneal washings for grade 3 endometrial cancer. While
dissecting the pelvic side wall, the consultant notices right ureteric injury
close to the bladder edge. Te urologist on call has been called for opinion and
repair.
What would be recommended management for her surgically?

A) Right ureter repair and ureteric stenting

B) End-to-end anastomosis of the ureter and ureteric stenting

C) Stenting of the ureter

D) Foley catheter for 2 weeks and stenting of the ureter

E) Ureteric re-implantation into the bladder using a psoas hitch to relieve tension of the repair

85)

A correlation study shows that there is a statistically signifcant positive
correlation between body mass index (BMI) and average blood loss at the time
of caesarean section. Pearson’s r is 0.4 and p value is 0.01.
How much of the variation in blood loss can be accounted for by the BMI
change?

A) 0.16%

B) 1.6%

C) 0.4%

D) 4%

E) 16%

A 38-year-old nulliparous woman with moderate chronic renal failure
comes to the preconception clinic as she wishes to have a baby. She had
renal transplantation 3 years ago and her recent creatinine is around 130
with estimated glomerular fltration rate (GFR) of approximately 45. She
is currently taking prednisolone, mycophenolate, angiotensin-converting
enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and aspirin. You have advised her to stop
mycophenolate and to start another immunosuppressant.
Which one of the immunosuppressant drugs would be contraindicated in
pregnancy?

A) Azathioprine

B) Cyclosporine

C) Hydroxychloroquine Correct

D) Sirolimus

E) Tacrolimus

90)

A 40-year-old para 2 woman is referred to the gynaecology clinic for
menorrhagia. She has an outpatient hysteroscopy and Pipelle biopsy which
is normal. She has tried Mirena but this has not reduced her bleeding. She
undergoes a NovaSure endometrial ablation.
Which one of the following expectations might not be met?

A) Dysmenorrhoea might not be relieved

B) Premenstrual syndrome might not be relieved

C) Subsequent pregnancy is not contraindicated

D) Successful reduction in bleeding occurred in 98% of the patients by 12 months

E) Subsequent contraception will not be required

91)

Ms XY is 30/40 weeks pregnant. Her recent MSU sample confi rms the presence of
signifi cant GBS bacteriuria (>105 CFU/ml) sensitive to cephalexin. However, she is
asymptomatic for a UTI. Which of the following treatment options are best suited to
her?

A) Intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis specifi c to GBS only.

B) Reassurance as she is asymptomatic for a UTI.

C) Repeat the MSU.

D) Treatment of the UTI and intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis specifi c to GBS.

E) Treatment of the UTI only.

92)

A 14-year-old girl was having a suction termination of pregnancy (TOP).
She did not want her mother to know. Her mother asks you about why her
daughter is in the hospital.
Te options in the girl’s case include the following except for which one?

A) Disclose to the mother

B) Speak to the patient about disclosure

C) Encourage patient to disclose to mother

D) Advise safe sex practices to patient

E) Advise reliable contraception to patient

93) Young girl 18 year old, presented to GP with normal breast development clitoromeghaly, labial fusion, what is the diagnosis

A) Late onset CAH

B) AIS

C) Turner syndrome

D) early onset CAH

E) PCOS

Which one of the following statements is correct with regards to the
statistical tests?

A) Mann-Whitney compares two sets of observations on a single sample

B) Wilcoxon test compares three or more sets of observations on a single sample

C) Kruskal-Wallis test compares two independent samples drawn from the same population

D) Spearman’s rank correlation coefcient assesses the strength of linear association between two variables

E) X2 test is used for data that are not normally distributed

96) A 35-year-old woman presented with a offensive frothy vaginal discharge

On speculum examination, the cervix was red, punctate and inflamed.

The wet mount shows the mobile organism.

What is a likely diagnosis in her case?

A) Trichomoniasis

B) Candidiasis

C) Bacterial vaginosis

D) Chlamydia

E) Donovanosis

98)

A 26-year-old woman is referred to colposcopy clinic for severe dyskaryosis.
Colposcopy reveals a tumour on the cervix. Cervical biopsy is reported
as squamous cell carcinoma of cervix. She has been booked for radical
hysterectomy.
Which of these instruments is used to identify and release the ureter in the
ureteric tunnel in radical hysterectomy?

A) Gullums

B) Zaplins

C) Rogers

D) Roberts Correct

E) Lahey

99) Diabetic mother, during pregnancy was taking insulin now shifted back to prepregnancy medicine that was metformin. Baby was alright after birth but 2 hrs after birth poor suckling became lethargic. What is the cause of baby’s condition

A) , Hypoglycemia

B) polycythemia

C) Hyperbilirubinaemia

D) Hyperglycemia

E) Hyperkalemia

100) A 30-year-old woman in her third pregnancy arrives unbooked from Mumbai

at 28 weeks of gestation. She begins to feel unwell at 32 weeks of gestation and

develops jaundice, severe fatigue and nausea. She rapidly develops fulminant

hepatic failure and encephalopathy. She is transferred to a liver unit, but dies,

A) <50 human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) RNA copies/ml

B) 50–399 HIV RNA copies/ml

C) ≥400 HIV RNA copies/ml

D) >1000 HIV RNA copies/ml

E) >100,000 HIV RNA copies/ml F CD4 cell count <350 cells/μl

F) Hepatitis E

G) Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

H) Primary biliary cholangitis

Your score is