Mock Test-4_Module Part-1

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1) During delivery of a first twin, a very tight nuchal cord is reduced from the baby’s neck by clamping and dividing it. After this, the second twin (as yet unborn) develops severe fetal Of the following, what is the most likely mechanism for the distress in the second twin?

A) a twin-to-twin transfusion before birth

B) the second twin may no longer be connected to its placenta

C) placenta previa in the second twin

D) amniotic fluid embolism

E) uterine rupture

2) gastric juice deficiency is likely to result in which of the following abnormality?

A) Pale stools

B) Local infections

C) Steatorrhoea

D) Milk intolerance

E) Anaemia

3) Two couples present to the emergency room with severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. One of the patients admits that she had a dinner party and served a salad containing mushrooms she had picked during a hike in the forest earlier that day. Inhibition of which enzyme or process explains the clinical manifestations of a-amanitin poisoning seen in these patients?

A) RNA polymerase II

B) RNA polymerase I

C) RNA splicing

D) RNA polyadenylation

E) RNA polymerase III

4) Which of the following is true concerning the Müllerian ducts?

A) Are derived from coelomic epithelium

B) Form the vas deferens

C) Form urogenital sinus in their lowest part

D) Fuse from above downwards

E) Grow medial to the Wolffian ducts

5) Two couples present to the emergency room with severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. One of the patients admits that she had a dinner party and served a salad containing mushrooms she had picked during a hike in the forest earlier that day. Inhibition of which enzyme or process explains the clinical manifestations of a-amanitin poisoning seen in these patients?

A) RNA polymerase II

B) RNA polymerase I

C) RNA splicing

D) RNA polyadenylation

E) RNA polymerase III

6) What is the uterine corpus mainly composed of?

A) fibrous tissue

B) estrogen receptors

C) smooth muscle

D) elastic tissue

E) endometrium

7) A 39-year-old multiparous woman is 13 weeks She has serum screening as part of the combined test. Analysis shows an elevated level of α-fetoprotein and a normal level of pregnancy-associated plasma protein A.What diagnosis are the screening results suggestive of?

A) Down’s syndrome

B) Edwards’ syndrome

C) Multiple pregnancy

D) Neural tube defect

E) Normal pregnancy

8) At the end of week 2 of development (day 14), what is the composition of the embryonic disk?

A) Epiblast only

B) Epiblast and hypoblast

C) Ectoderm and endoderm

D) Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm

E) Epiblast, mesoderm, and hypoblast

9) Which of the following organs is derived from ectodermal neural crest cells?

A) Adrenal gland inner medulla

B) Adrenal gland outer cortex

C) Liver

D) Pancreas

E) Spleen

10) Deficiency of following vitamin deficiency cause paraesthesia

A) B2

B) B3

C) Pantothenic acid

D) K

E) B1

11) What is the nerve root of the ilioinguinal nerve?

A) T12 and L1

B) L1

C) L1 and L2

D) L2

E) L2 and L3

12) Which of the following conditions is not associated with genetic anticipation?

A) Cystic fibrosis

B) Fragile X syndrome

C) Huntington’s chorea

D) Myotonic dystrophy

E) None of the above

13) A 17-year-old woman who recently began taking birth control pills presents to the emergency room with cramping abdominal pain, anxiety, paranoia, and hallucinations. A surgical evaluation, including ultrasound and computed tomography scan, fails to demonstrate an acute abdominal process. A urinalysis reveals an increase in urine porphyrins. Which of the following is the most likely?

A) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

B) Variegate porphyria

C) Porphyria cutanea tarda

D) Acute intermittent porphyria

E) Erythropoietic protoporphyria

14) A 26-year-old female presents with right iliac fossa pain and is taken to theatre for an appendectomy. An incision is made through the skin and onto muscle with fibres passing inferiorly in an oblique direction. Which muscle is cut in this scenario?

A) Internal oblique

B) External oblique

C) Rectus abdominis

D) Transversus abdominis

E) Pyramidalis

15) Which of the following structures pass under the inguinal ligament?

A) The long saphenous vein

B) The superficial femoral artery

C) The superficial epigastric vein

D) The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

E) The femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

16) Which of the following is correct regarding vitamin B12?

A) Is a fat-soluble vitamin

B) Absorption takes place throughout the small intestine

C) Is essential for the metabolism of folic acid in the human

D) Deficiency leads to microcytic anaemia

E) Deficiency is common in non-vegetarians

17) In oogenesis, which of the following events occurs immediately following the completions of meiosis II?

A) Degeneration of the zona pellucida

B) Sperm penetration of the corona radiata

C) Formation of a female pronucleus

D) Appearance of the blastocyst

E) Completion of cleavage

18) Which of the following drugs causes hypokalaemia?

A) Amiloride

B) Carbenoxolone

C) Digoxin

D) Spironolactone

E) All of the above

19) Which of the following is true regarding Down syndrome?

A) Shows X-linked pattern of inheritance

B) There may be mild to moderate mental retardation

C) Is characterised by the presence of muscle hypertonia

D) Larger than normal space between the second and third toe

E) The commonest type of congenital heart defect which may be present is coarctation of aorta

20) The risk of developing gallstones increases in which of the following situations?

A) When cholesterol micelles are formed in the gall bladder

B) As the bile salt: cholesterol ratio increases

C) As the lecithin: cholesterol ratio increases

D) When supplementary bile salts are taken by mouth

E) In patients with haemolytic anaemia

21) A 32-year-old primiparous woman suffers a massive antepartum haemorrhage and undergoes an emergency caesarean section. During the caesarean section she suffers a massive obstetric haemorrhage requiring transfusion of blood and clotting As a result of these events, she develops disseminated intravascular coagulopathy.Which of the following laboratory results would be expected in this condition?

A) Decreased activated partial thromboplastin time

B) Increased factor VII levels

C) Increased fibrinogen

D) Increased soluble fibrin

E) Thrombocytopenia

22) A patient presents approximately 10 years post-menopausal with complaints of pressure vaginally and the sensation that something is falling out. When told she has a fallen uterus, she wonders if it is due to the damage from her round ligaments since she had a great deal of round ligament pain during her pregnancies. Which of the following ligaments provide the most support to the uterus in terms of preventing prolapse?

A) broad ligaments

B) round ligaments

C) utero-ovarian ligaments

D) cardinal ligaments

E) arcuate ligament

23) Which of the following is true regarding Down syndrome?

A) Shows X-linked pattern of inheritance

B) There may be mild to moderate mental retardation

C) Is characterised by the presence of muscle hypertonia

D) Larger than normal space between the second and third toe

E) The commonest type of congenital heart defect which may be present is coarctation of aorta

24) Women having their first child after the age of 35 are associated with an increased risk of which of the following?

A) Average blood loss than younger women

B) Incidence of ineffective uterine contractions during labour

C) Incidence of foetal abnormalities

D) Risk of spontaneous abortion

E) All of the above

25) A 33-year-old lady, who is 38 weeks pregnant, presents to her general practitioner with a 4- week history of pain and paraesthesia over the upper outer aspect of her right thigh. There is no restriction of movements in her hips or knees and her gait is normal. Which is the most likely nerve, which is affected in this case?

A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

B) Femoral nerve

C) Common peroneal nerve

D) Sciatic nerve

E) Tibial nerve

26) A 63-year-old man in the surgical ward is complaining of numbness over the anterior thigh and medial aspect of his right leg. He is unable to extend his right knee and the knee jerk is reduced. He had undergone a femoral aneurysm repair 3 days ago.Which is the most probable nerve damaged in this case?

A) Femoral nerve

B) Saphenous nerve

C) Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve

D) Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve

E) Sciatic nerve

27) Which of the following is true regarding the ductus venosus?

A) Carries blood with a higher PO2 than umbilicalarterial blood

B) Gives rise to the ligamentum teres

C) Is a shunt preventing blood from passing to the foetal lungs

D) Is derived from the anterior cardinal vein

E) Is part of the embryonic heart

28) Regarding the blood supply of anterior abdominal wall, which is not true?

A) Cutaneous branches from superior and inferior epigastric arteries supply the flanks.

B) .Cutaneous branches from the superior and inferior epigastric arteries supply the area the midline. .

C) Branches from the intercostal and lumbar arteries supply the flanks

D) All the above.

E) None of the above

29) A 46 XY karyotype associated with a female phenotype is found in which of the following?

A) A child whose mother has been treated with stilboestrol

B) A patient with testicular feminisation syndrome (androgen insensitivity)

C) An infant whose mother has thyrotoxicosis

D) An infant whose mother is treated with prednisolone

E) Noonan's syndrome

30) Co-factor for the free radical scavenging enzyme glutathione peroxidase is-

A) Zinc

B) Iron

C) Selenium

D) Molybdenum

E) Copper

31) During ovulation, the secondary oocyte resides at what specific stage of meiosis?

A) Prophase of meiosis I

B) Prophase of meiosis II

C) Metaphase of meiosis I

D) Metaphase of meiosis II

E) Meiosis is completed at the time of Ovulation

32) increased numbers of chromosomes occur in which of the following condition?

A) Fragile X syndrome

B) Down’s syndrome

C) Phenylketonuria

D) Turners syndrome

E) Cri du chat syndrome

33) What is the main site of iron absorption?

A) Stomach

B) Rectum

C) Upper small intestine

D) Lower small intestine

E) Colon

Which of the following is a branch of the femoral artery?

A) Peroneal artery

B) The ascending genicular artery

C) The deep epigastric artery

D) Medial circumflex iliac artery

E) Superficial circumflex iliac artery

35) Sympathetic drive to the heart is increased in which of the following conditions?

A) In exercise

B) In excitement

C) In hypotension

D) None of the above

E) All of the above

36) Poor wound healing, impaired spermatogenesis, diarrhoea, dermatitis, alopecia are the features of which mineral deficiency-

A) Iron

B) Copper

C) Zinc

D) Magnesium

E) Chromium.

37) Presence of vaginal septa is not associated with which of the following?

A) Dysmenorrhoea

B) Dyspareunia

C) Obstructed labour

D) Uterine abnormalities

E) Easy removal in most of the cases

38) Which of the following disorders have an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance?

A) Christmas disease

B) Neurofibromatosis

C) Colour blindness

D) Tay Sachs disease

E) Achondroplasia

39) gastric juice deficiency is likely to result in which of the following abnormality?

A) Pale stools

B) Local infections

C) Steatorrhoea

D) Milk intolerance

E) Anaemia

40) Normal clotting of blood requires

A) Inactivation of heparin

B) Inactivation of plasmin (fibrinolysin)

C) Calcium ions

D) An adequate intake of vitamin D

E) An adequate intake of vitamin C

41) A patient develops a neurologic disease that destroys components of S2, S3, S4 What clinical manifestation would you expect the patient to have as a result?

A) inability to abduct her thigh

B) rectal incontinence

C) painless menses

D) labor without pain

E) inability to extend her knees

42) Which of following vitamin act as antioxidant and its deficiency cause mild hemolytic anemia in newborn

A) A

B) D

C) E

D) K

E) B1

43) In baby with Down's syndrome , the probability of extra chromosome 21 being maternal in origin

A) 100%

B) 95-100%

C) 80-85%

D) 70-79%

E) 50%

44) The part of the pelvis lying above the linea ter-minalis has little effect on a woman’s ability to deliver a baby What is the name of this portion of the pelvis?

A) true pelvis

B) midplane

C) outlet

D) false pelvis

E) sacrum

45) Which of the following is true regarding the human rectum?

A) Drains lymph to the pre-aortic nodes.

B) Has mesentery in the posterior third.

C) Is covered anteriorly by peritoneum along its whole length.

D) Has a blood supply from the terminal branches of the superior mesenteric artery.

E) Has appendices epiploicae.

46) Which of the following regions of nephron does the water leave via diffusion?

A) Descending thin limb

B) Thick ascending limb

C) Proximal convoluted tubule

D) Distal convoluted tubule

E) Bowman’s capsule

47) A 32-year-old woman undergoes an emergency caesarean section for failure to progress at 9 cm cervical dilatation. Which of the following correctly describes the pelvic shape which has an anteroposterior diameter of the inlet, greater than the transverse diameter?

A) Android

B) Anthropoid

C) Gynaecoid

D) Male

E) Platypelloid

48) In the production of male gametes, which of the following cells remains dormant for 12 years?

A) Primordial germ cell

B) Primary spermatocyte

C) Secondary spermatocyte

D) Spermatid

E) Sperm

49) A 41-year-old woman presents with severe, sharp epigastric abdominal pain that radiates to her back and with nausea and vomiting. Laboratory results indicate a serum triglyceride level of 5000 mg/dL. She is diagnosed with pancreatitis, in part owing to her elevated serum triacyl- glycerol To form triacylglycerol from diacylglycerol, which of the following compounds is also required?

A) Glycerol

B) Glycerol 3-phosphate

C) Fatty acyl CoA

D) Acetyl CoA

E) Malonyl CoA

50) The hair cells in the semi-circular canals are stimulated by which of the following?

A) Movement of perilymph

B) Linear acceleration

C) Rotation at constant velocity

D) Gravity

E) Movement of endolymph relative to hair cells

51) From which of the following is the nerve supply to the vulva derived?

A) Genitofemoral nerve

B) Ilioinguinal nerve

C) Pudendal nerve

D) All the above

E) None of the above

52) A healthy 5 ft 6 tall, adult female is most likely to have a pelvic inlet that would be classified as which of the following Caldwell-Moloy types?

A) android

B) platypelloid

C) anthropoid

D) gynecoid

E) triangular

53) in a normal adult woman weighing 75 kg, which of the following is not true regarding the extracellular fluid (ECF)

A) Contains plasma protein

B) Forms a lesser proportion of the total body weight in an obese than in a lean woman

C) Has a sodium concentration of 135–145 mmol/L

D) Is isotonic throughout the body

E) Has a total volume of 12–15 litres

54) Which of the following is true concerning 1,25-(OH)2D3 (vitamin D)?

A) Facilitates calcium and phosphate reabsorption from bone

B) Is more active than 24,25-(OH)2 vitamin D

C) Levels are low during lactation

D) Reduces the absorption of calcium and phosphate from the gut

E) .Stimulates the excretion of calcium and phosphate into renal tubules

55) You are counseling a 16-year-old G1P0 girl and her 16-year-old boyfriend. Two weeks ago they received a quad screen result with a 1:50 risk for Down She has noninformative family history and medical history. You begin counseling by explaining that the number of chromosomes in a fetus is how many?

A) 23

B) 46

C) 48

D) 47 for a female fetus

E) 21 for Down syndrome

56) Which of the following occurs during the isometric ventricular contraction?

A) The entry and exit valves of the ventricle are closed

B) Pressure in the aorta rises

C) Pressure in the atria falls

D) Left coronary blood flow rises

E) The rate of rise in pressure is greater in the right than in the left ventricle

57) Which of the following is true regarding carbohydrate metabolism?

A) The principal carbohydrate used in body metabolism is galactose

B) Glycolysis is the process of glycogen formation

C) The pentose shunt is active in all cells of the body except red blood cells (RBCs)

D) The tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle is the common pathway for the oxidation of dietary carbohydrates, fats and proteins to CO2 and H2O

E) Acetoacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric acid are types of fat

58) A 27-year-old woman has a cervical smear result which shows ‘borderline’ Which cells line the ectocervix?

A) Ciliated cells

B) Columnar epithelium

C) Cuboidal epithelium

D) Smooth muscle cells

E) Stratified squamous epithelium

59) Which of the following is true regarding the ventricular filling?

A) Depends mainly on atrial contraction

B) Begins during isometric ventricular relaxation

C) Gives rise to a third heart sound in some healthy people

D) Can occur only when atrial pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure

E) Is most rapid in the second half of diastole

60) A 23-year-old woman is referred to an endocrinologist for weight gain, especially around the waist. She also has striae over the abdomen and a rounded appearance to her face. She is found to have Cushing disease. Which of the following would most likely be found in this patient, compared with someone who does not have Cushing disease?

A) Increased synthesis of immunoglobulins

B) Increased protein synthesis

C) Inhibition of lipolysis

D) Increased gluconeogenesis

E) Reduced liver glycogen stores

61) Which of the following technique is not directly used for used for identifying DNA?

A) Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis

B) Northern blotting

C) Polymerase chain reaction

D) Southern blotting

E) None of the above

62) When does a secondary oocyte complete its second meiotic division to become a mature ovum?

A) At ovulation

B) Before ovulation

C) At fertilization

D) At puberty

E) Before birth

63) Which of the following is not a derivative of the vitelline vein?

A) Lower inferior vena cava

B) Inferior mesenteric vein

C) Superior mesenteric vein

D) Portal vein

E) Hepatic vein

64) Which process establishes the three definitive germ layers?

A) Neurulation

B) Gastrulation

C) Craniocaudal folding

D) Lateral folding

E) Angiogenesis

65) at birth which of the following changes occur in the foetus?

A) Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases

B) The aortic pressure decreases

C) The left ventricular pressure decreases

D) The right atrial pressure increases

E) The right ventricular pressure increases

66) Which of the following is not true regarding 1,25(OH)2 vitamin D?

A) 25-hydroxylation occurs in the kidney

B) Release is stimulated by hypophosphatemia

C) Promotes phosphate and calcium absorption from the gut

D) Attaches to cytosolic receptors

E) Concentrations are decreased in chronic renal failure

67) A 25-year-old G1P0, 20 weeks’ gestation has a family history of classic hemophilia. Her uncle on her mother’s side and her brother are affected. A perinatal ultrasound notes a male fetus. What is the chance that her son (in utero) will inherit hemophilia?

A) 25%

B) 50%

C) 33%

D) 100%

E) Impossible to say

68) Which of the following is true regarding hermaphroditism?

A) End-organ resistance is a feature

B) External sex is usually female

C) Mosaics do not occur

D) Either the primordial follicles or the seminiferous tubules are present

E) Chromosomal sex is usually female (46,XX)

69) Severe diarrhoea causes a decrease in all of the following except?

A) Body potassium

B) Body sodium

C) Extracellular fluid volume

D) Total peripheral resistance

E) Blood pH

70) Which of the following organs does not respond to oestrogens?

A) Breasts

B) Cervical glands

C) Fallopian tube

D) Vaginal epithelium

E) None of the above

71) A couple are both known to carry the trait for a haemoglobinopathy. They decline any invasive testing when they conceive their first At an anomaly scan at 20 weeks’ gestation the fetus is found to have severe hydrops. In utero death occurs at 22 weeks' gestation.What is the most likely cause of the fetal demise?

A) Alpha-thalassaemia with deletion of 4α-globin genes

B) Beta-thalassaemia major

C) Glucose-6-dehydrogenase deficiency

D) Haemoglobin H disease

E) Sickle cell disease

72) An iron overload is not seen in which of the following conditions?

A) Thalassaemia major

B) Polycythaemia rubra vera

C) Myelodysplasia

D) Haemochromatosis

E) None of the above

73) Which of the following is the best description of the pelvic diaphragm?

A) made up mainly by the coccygeus

B) covered on one side by fascia and on the other by peritoneum

C) a muscle innervated by L2, L3, and L4

D) an extension of the sacrococcygeal ligament

E) synonymous with the pelvic floor

74) Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

A) Arginine

B) Methionine

C) Glycine

D) Tryptophan

E) .Valine

75) Cell membrane primarily composed of:

A) Phosphatidylcholine

B) Phosphatidylethanolamine

C) Phosphatidylinisitol

D) Phosphatidylserine

E) All of above

76) intracranial pressure does not rise in which of the following situation?

A) Cerebral venous pressure rises

B) Forced expiration is made against a closed glottis

C) There is a bout of coughing

D) Cerebral blood flow increases

E) Arterial PCO2 falls below normal

77) Which of the following is the origin of the mitochondrial DNA of all human adult cells?

A) Paternal only

B) Maternal only

C) A combination of paternal and maternal

D) Either paternal or maternal

E) Unknown origin

78) The anatomy of the spinal cord and dural space is important when giving regional spinal At what approximate spinal level do the dural space and the spinal cord, respectively, end?

A) T10, T8

B) L2, T10

C) L5, T12

D) S2, L2

E) S5, S2

79) Which of the following substances occur in lower concentration in foetal blood in comparison to the maternal blood?

A) Amino acids

B) Ca2+

C) CO2

D) Glucose

E) Urea

80) Deficiency of following vitamin deficiency cause megaloblastic anemia:

A) B9

B) B12

C) Pantothenic acid

D) Both a and b

E) B1

81) Which of the following is not an intermediate product of the citric acid cycle?

A) Alpha-ketoglutarate

B) Acetyl coenzyme A

C) Citrate

D) Oxaloacetate

E) Succinyl coenzyme A

82) A 19-year-old woman with a complaint of never having had menses comes to your Physical examination shows that she is 1.37 m tall and weighs 94 lb. She lacks breast and pubic hair development.There is webbing of her neck and cubitus valgus.

Which of the following would be the simplest, yet most useful, initial test to begin her evaluation?

A) serum estrogen level

B) prolactin

C) thyroid index

D) serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)

E) a cardiogram

83) The mineral which has synergistic action with vitamin E is-

A) Calcium

B) Magnesium

C) Manganese

D) Sulphur

E) Selenium.

84) 46 XY karyotype is associated with which of the following condition?

A) MRKH syndrome

B) Testicular feminisation syndrome

C) Klinefelter’s syndrome

D) All the above

E) None of the above

85) The cells of which structure form the chorionic villi?

A) Neural crest

B) Endoderm

C) Primitive streak

D) Hypoblast

E) Extraembryonic mesoderm

86) Which artery supplies the structures derived from the foregut of the embryo?

A) Coeliac trunk

B) Inferior mesenteric

C) Middle rectal

D) Renal

E) Superior mesenteric

87) A 32-year-old woman is 15 weeks pregnant with her second She opts to have antenatal screening and has blood taken as part of the quadruple test. The result shows reduced levels of α-fetoprotein and unconjugated oestriol with elevated β-human chorionic gonadotrophin. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the screening results:

A) Down’s syndrome

B) Edwards’ syndrome

C) Multiple pregnancy

D) Neural tube defect

E) Normal pregnancy

88) Which of the following structures do not arise from the Wolffian ducts?

A) Epididymis

B) Epoöphoron

C) Gartner’s duct

D) Paroöphoron

E) Round ligament

89) What is the inheritance of sickle cell disease(SCD)?

A) single gene autosomal dominant

B) polygenic autosomal dominant

C) single gene autosomal recessive

D) polygenic autosomal recessive

E) X‐linked dominant

90) When performing a hysterectomy, the surgeon should be aware that at its closest position to the cervix, the ureter is normally separated from the cervix by which of the following distances?

A) 0.5 mm

B) 1.2 mm

C) 12 mm

D) 3 cm

E) 5 cm

91) Which of the following is the leading cause of Down Syndrome?

A) Nondisjunction maternal gamete

B) Nondisjunction paternal gamete

C) Mitotic Nondisjunction after conception

D) Robertsonian Translocation

E) Ring Chromosome

92) Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and is used in the treatment of all the following conditions except which one?

A) Dehydration

B) Glaucoma

C) Epilepsy

D) Altitude sickness

E) Congestive heart failure

93) Which of the following organs is derived from the ectodermal neural crest cells?

A) Inner medulla of adrenal glands

B) Outer cortex of adrenal glands

C) Liver

D) Spleen

E) Pancreas

94) 46 XX karyotype is associated with which of the condition?

A) Testicular feminisation syndrome

B) Klinefelter’s syndrome

C) Muscular dystrophy

D) Constitutional hirsutism

E) None of the above

95) Which of the following is true regarding colour blindness?

A) Results from inability to detect one of the three primary light colours, red, yellow and blue

B) Where red and green are indistinguishable is due to failure of red and green cone systems

C) In which no colours can be detected is due to failure of all the cones systems

D) Is more common in women than men

E) Is a disability linked to the Y-chromosome

96) A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the intensive care unit for septic shock from a urinary tract infection. The critical care fellow is concerned she may not have an appropriate stress response and orders a cosyntropin Which hormone does this test evaluate?

A) Oxytocin

B) Vasopressin

C) Cortisol

D) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

E) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

97) Which of the following statement is true regarding human chromosomes?

A) Banding with quinicrine fluorescent stain can be used to identify X chromosome

B) Banding can be used to determine polymorphism in populations

C) Telocentric chromosomes have a centrally placed centromere

D) Terminal fragments called ‘satellites’ are present in the metacentric chromosomes

E) Telocentric chromosomes are present in human

98) Which of the following is true about the smooth muscle cells?

A) Controlled by the autonomic nervous system

B) Do not contain actin and myosin

C) Mitochondria are absent

D) Present a striated appearance

E) Do not cause spontaneous muscle contraction

99) Whilst examining the abdomen of a 21-year-old female with abdominal pain you notice a well-defined “six-pack”. Which muscle is this?

A) Rectus abdominis

B) Transversus abdominis

C) Cremaster

D) External oblique

E) Internal oblique

100) A 34-year-old woman delivers a male baby with Down’s syndrome. Chromosomal analysis following his birth is suggestive of familial Down’s syndrome. What chromosomal event best describes the aetiology of Familial Down’s syndrome?

A) Microdeletion

B) Nonsense mutation

C) Reciprocal translocation

D) Robertsonian translocation

E) Triplet repeat expansion

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