Module part-1- Biophysics

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1) Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of?

A) < 2 cm

B) < 5 mm

C) < 5 cm

D) < 8 mm

E) < 8 cm

2) What percentage of patients undergoing radiotherapy develop fatigue as an acute side effect?

A) 5%

B) 10%

C) 25%

D) 50%

E) 80%

A 28 year old women presents for an early scan at the EPU. On TVS what size is the gestational
sac when the embryonic pole should become visible?

A) 3mm

B) 6mm

C) 9mm

D) 12mm

E) 16mm

4) What is the typical magnetic field strength of an MRI scanner used routinely in UK hospitals?

A) 0.1 ‐ 0.5 T

B) 0.2 ‐1.0 T

C) 1.5 ‐ 3.0 T

D) 3.0 ‐ 15.0 T

E) 9.4 ‐ 15.0 T

You have taken a history from a patient with symptoms of urinary incontinence. There is no
history of cancer, no suggestion of neurological disease and no pelvic masses. According to NICE
guidelines which of the tests below is indicated in the initial assessment of patients with urinary
incontinence?

A) Post void residual volume by bladder scan

B) Multi‐channel cystometry

C) Ambulatory urodynamics

D) Videourodynamics

E) Cystoscopy

6) Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

A) Atrial depolarisation

B) Atrial repolarisation

C) Ventricular depolarisation

D) Ventricular repolarisation

E) Repolarisation of inter ventricular septum

7) With regard to MRI scanning what is the SI unit measure of magnetic field strength?

A) Weber

B) Tesla

C) Coulomb

D) Ampere

E) Gauss

8) Regarding the ECG, what does the QRS complex represent?

A) Atrial depolarisation

B) Atrial repolarisation

C) Ventricular depolarisation

D) Ventricular repolarisation

E) Repolarisation of the interventricular septum

9) What frequency is used for trans‐abdominal ultrasound?

A) 1.5 MHz

B) 3.0 MHz

C) 4.5 MHz

D) 6.0 MHz

E) 7.5 MHz

10) Which of the following might you expect to see on the ECG of a patient with hypocalcaemia?

A) Peaked T waves

B) Delta Wave

C) Prolonged PR

D) ST elevation

E) Long QT

11) Which of the following is an acute complication of radiotherapy?

A) Moist skin desquamation

B) Epilation

C) Acute myeloid leukaemia

D) Fibrosis

E) Lymphoedema

12)

A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered
Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. When should the HSG test be performed?

A) Anytime during cycle

B) Days 1‐5

C) Days 6‐12

D) Days 13‐18

E) After day 18

13) Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing?

A) Internal and external urethral sphincters

B) Detrusor and urethral sphincter muscles

C) Detrusor

D) Detrusor, levator ani and abdominal muscles

E) External urethral sphincter

14) With regard to MRI scanning what is the SI unit measure of magnetic flux?

A) Tesla

B) Coulomb

C) Ampere

D) Joule

E) Weber

15)

You assess a 68 year old lady who has been admitted with heavy PV bleeding. She has known
heart failure. In A&E she had 1 litre of IV Saline 0.9% over 1 hour and her second litre bag of IV
saline is almost empty. You assess her JVP. Which of the following would you expect to see in
someone with heart failure and fluid overload?

A) Elevated JVP normal waveform

B) Kussmaul's sign

C) Cannon A waves

D) Paradoxical JVP

E) Absent A waves

16) Which of the following is likely to reduce the effectiveness of local radiotherapy?

A) Metronidazole treatment

B) Hypoxic environment

C) Polycythaemia

D) Cisplatin chemotherapy

E) Cetumixab therapy

17) Piezoelectric crystal resonance is used in what imaging modality?

A) PET

B) CAT scan

C) MRI

D) X‐ray

E) Ultrasound

18) Ultrasound frequencies are sound waves with frequencies of

A) < 2 Hz

B) < 20 Hz

C) 20 Hz to 20 KHz

D) > 20 Hz

E) > 20 KHz

19) Regarding the ECG, what does the T wave represent?

A) Atrial depolarisation

B) Atrial repolarisation

C) Ventricular depolarisation

D) Ventricular repolarisation

E) Repolarisation of the interventricular septum

20) At what gestation does the fetal heart first become detectable on ultrasound?

A) 4 weeks

B) 6 weeks

C) 7 weeks

D) 8 weeks

E) 9 weeks

21)

You are asked to review a 27 year old women who has been admitted with toxic shock
syndrome due to retained tampon. The lab phone you with her U&E results:
Sodium 133 mmol/l
Potassium 6.6 mmol/l
Urea 16.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 140 umol/l
You request an ECG. Which of the following would you expect to find?

A) Shortened PR interval

B) U‐waves

C) Peaked T waves

D) Large P waves

E) Narrow QRS

22) Which of the following statements, if any, regarding diathermy (electrosurgery) is true?

A) Frequencies above 200 KHz should not be used due to risk of electrocution

B) Plates must be properly adhered or inadequate current will be generated and will impede cutting

C) Diathermy utilises frequencies of 50‐100 KHz

D) Plates must be properly adhered to prevent local burns

E) None of the above

23)

What is the normal maximum endometrial thickness on ultrasound assessment of a post
menopausal uterus?

A) 4mm

B) 8mm

C) 14mm

D) 18mm

E) 24mm

24) With regard to XRAYs what is the SI unit of absorbed dose?

A) Becquerel

B) Hertz

C) Gray

D) Sievert

E) Tesla

25)

In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on transvaginal
ultrasound?

A) 4 weeks

B) 4 weeks + 3 days

C) 5 weeks

D) 5 weeks + 3 days

E) 6 weeks

26)

You perform bloods on a patient with a history of anorexia. Biochemistry phone with her U&E
results:
Sodium 135 mmol/l
Potassium 2.6 mmol/l
Urea 5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 35 umol/l
Which of the following would you expect to see on a patient ECG?

A) Peaked T waves

B) U waves

C) Epsilon waves

D) Flat P waves

E) Tall Tented T waves

27) DEXA scans measure bone density by

A) Measuring absorption from a standardised XRAY beam energy (approx 30 KeV) aimed at 2 or more sites

B) Measuring absorption from two different XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the same site

C) Uses a computer to analyse absorption from multiple XRAYs aimed at bone from different angles

D) Uses geographical digital processing to anaylse XRAY beams in a single axis of rotation

E) Measuring absorption from a standardised XRAY beam energy (approx 30 KeV) aimed at a single site from 2 or more angles

28) What frequency is used for trans‐vaginal ultrasound?

A) 3.0 MHz

B) 7.0 MHz

C) 10.0 MHz

D) 15.0 MHz

E) 25 MHz

29) Which of the following best describes magnetic resonance imaging?

A) Utilise a piezoelectric transducer to generate a field

B) Utilises a radiofrequency pulse to alter the spin of protons

C) Utilises ionising radiation

D) Typically uses Klystron tubes to generate EM waves with a frequency of 0.3 to 300 GHz

E) Involves a gain medium that stimulates emission of electromagnetic radiation

30) Which of the following might you expect to see on the ECG of a patient with hypercalcaemia?

A) Short PR interval

B) Short QT interval

C) Epsilon waves

D) Delta waves

E) Peaked T waves

31)

A 28 year old women undergoes transvaginal ultrasound scan (TVS) at the EPU. What size is the
gestational sac typically when the yolk sac becomes visible on TVS?

A) 3mm

B) 5mm

C) 10mm

D) 16mm

E) 20mm

32) Which of the following is a form of non‐ionising radiation?

A) X‐RAY

B) DEXA

C) Iodine 131

D) CT

E) LASER

33)

A patient undergoes LASER treatment for CIN. Which of the following is the most appropriate
choice of LASER?

A) Argon

B) CO2

C) Nd YAG

D) Neodynium

E) Diode

34)

You are discussing the radiation risk of a chest XRAY with a pregnant patient. A chest XRAY is
equivalent to how many days of natural background radiation?

A) Half (12 hours)

B) 1

C) 2.5

D) 7

E) 28

35)

You are discussing radiation doses for an abdominal CT. The radiation dose of an abdominal CT
is equivalent to which of the following?

A) 40 Chest X‐rays

B) 1 year natural background radiation

C) 400 Chest X‐rays

D) 10 years natural background radiation

E) 40 Days natural background radiation

36) Which of the following utilises ionising radiation?

A) PET

B) MRI

C) Doppler

D) Duplex scanning

E) Laser

37) What frequency would typically be used for monopolar diathermy?

A) 5 Hz

B) 50 KHz

C) 100 KHz

D) 500 KHz

E) 10,000 KHz

38)

In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal
ultrasound?

A) 4 weeks

B) 4 weeks + 3 days

C) 5 weeks

D) 5 weeks + 3 days

E) 7 weeks

39)

You assess a 63 year old lady on the ward who has undergone hysterectomy. She complains of
palpitations and feeling a little short of breath.You organise bloods and an ECG. The ECG shows
atrial fibrillation. Which of the following might you expect to see on assessing the JVP?

A) Paradoxical JVP

B) Large V wave

C) Absent X wave

D) Kussmaul's sign

E) Absent A waves

40) The yolk sac reaches its maximum diameter at what week of gestation?

A) 6 weeks

B) 10 weeks

C) 16 weeks

D) 24 weeks

E) 38 weeks

41)

Regarding PCOS (PolyCystic Ovary Syndrome) which of the following ultrasound findings form
part of the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosis of PCOS

A) Increased ovarian volume > 5 cm3

B) Increased ovarian volume >10cm3

C) 5 or more peripheral ovarian follicles

D) 10 or more peripheral ovarian follicles

E) None of the above

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