Module part-1- Biophysics

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1) With regard to MRI scanning what is the SI unit measure of magnetic flux?

A) Tesla

B) Coulomb

C) Ampere

D) Joule

E) Weber

2) At what gestation does the fetal heart first become detectable on ultrasound?

A) 4 weeks

B) 6 weeks

C) 7 weeks

D) 8 weeks

E) 9 weeks

3) DEXA scans measure bone density by

A) Measuring absorption from a standardised XRAY beam energy (approx 30 KeV) aimed at 2 or more sites

B) Measuring absorption from two different XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the same site

C) Uses a computer to analyse absorption from multiple XRAYs aimed at bone from different angles

D) Uses geographical digital processing to anaylse XRAY beams in a single axis of rotation

E) Measuring absorption from a standardised XRAY beam energy (approx 30 KeV) aimed at a single site from 2 or more angles

4) What percentage of patients undergoing radiotherapy develop fatigue as an acute side effect?

A) 5%

B) 10%

C) 25%

D) 50%

E) 80%

5) Which of the following utilises ionising radiation?

A) PET

B) MRI

C) Doppler

D) Duplex scanning

E) Laser

What is the normal maximum endometrial thickness on ultrasound assessment of a post
menopausal uterus?

A) 4mm

B) 8mm

C) 14mm

D) 18mm

E) 24mm

7) Which of the following is an acute complication of radiotherapy?

A) Moist skin desquamation

B) Epilation

C) Acute myeloid leukaemia

D) Fibrosis

E) Lymphoedema

You have taken a history from a patient with symptoms of urinary incontinence. There is no
history of cancer, no suggestion of neurological disease and no pelvic masses. According to NICE
guidelines which of the tests below is indicated in the initial assessment of patients with urinary
incontinence?

A) Post void residual volume by bladder scan

B) Multi‐channel cystometry

C) Ambulatory urodynamics

D) Videourodynamics

E) Cystoscopy

A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered
Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. When should the HSG test be performed?

A) Anytime during cycle

B) Days 1‐5

C) Days 6‐12

D) Days 13‐18

E) After day 18

10)

You are discussing radiation doses for an abdominal CT. The radiation dose of an abdominal CT
is equivalent to which of the following?

A) 40 Chest X‐rays

B) 1 year natural background radiation

C) 400 Chest X‐rays

D) 10 years natural background radiation

E) 40 Days natural background radiation

11)

Regarding PCOS (PolyCystic Ovary Syndrome) which of the following ultrasound findings form
part of the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosis of PCOS

A) Increased ovarian volume > 5 cm3

B) Increased ovarian volume >10cm3

C) 5 or more peripheral ovarian follicles

D) 10 or more peripheral ovarian follicles

E) None of the above

12) The yolk sac reaches its maximum diameter at what week of gestation?

A) 6 weeks

B) 10 weeks

C) 16 weeks

D) 24 weeks

E) 38 weeks

13)

You are discussing the radiation risk of a chest XRAY with a pregnant patient. A chest XRAY is
equivalent to how many days of natural background radiation?

A) Half (12 hours)

B) 1

C) 2.5

D) 7

E) 28

14) Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of?

A) < 2 cm

B) < 5 mm

C) < 5 cm

D) < 8 mm

E) < 8 cm

15)

You assess a 63 year old lady on the ward who has undergone hysterectomy. She complains of
palpitations and feeling a little short of breath.You organise bloods and an ECG. The ECG shows
atrial fibrillation. Which of the following might you expect to see on assessing the JVP?

A) Paradoxical JVP

B) Large V wave

C) Absent X wave

D) Kussmaul's sign

E) Absent A waves

16) What frequency is used for trans‐abdominal ultrasound?

A) 1.5 MHz

B) 3.0 MHz

C) 4.5 MHz

D) 6.0 MHz

E) 7.5 MHz

17)

You are asked to review a 27 year old women who has been admitted with toxic shock
syndrome due to retained tampon. The lab phone you with her U&E results:
Sodium 133 mmol/l
Potassium 6.6 mmol/l
Urea 16.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 140 umol/l
You request an ECG. Which of the following would you expect to find?

A) Shortened PR interval

B) U‐waves

C) Peaked T waves

D) Large P waves

E) Narrow QRS

18) Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing?

A) Internal and external urethral sphincters

B) Detrusor and urethral sphincter muscles

C) Detrusor

D) Detrusor, levator ani and abdominal muscles

E) External urethral sphincter

19) Which of the following might you expect to see on the ECG of a patient with hypercalcaemia?

A) Short PR interval

B) Short QT interval

C) Epsilon waves

D) Delta waves

E) Peaked T waves

20) With regard to XRAYs what is the SI unit of absorbed dose?

A) Becquerel

B) Hertz

C) Gray

D) Sievert

E) Tesla

21) What frequency would typically be used for monopolar diathermy?

A) 5 Hz

B) 50 KHz

C) 100 KHz

D) 500 KHz

E) 10,000 KHz

22)

You perform bloods on a patient with a history of anorexia. Biochemistry phone with her U&E
results:
Sodium 135 mmol/l
Potassium 2.6 mmol/l
Urea 5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 35 umol/l
Which of the following would you expect to see on a patient ECG?

A) Peaked T waves

B) U waves

C) Epsilon waves

D) Flat P waves

E) Tall Tented T waves

23) Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

A) Atrial depolarisation

B) Atrial repolarisation

C) Ventricular depolarisation

D) Ventricular repolarisation

E) Repolarisation of inter ventricular septum

24) Which of the following is likely to reduce the effectiveness of local radiotherapy?

A) Metronidazole treatment

B) Hypoxic environment

C) Polycythaemia

D) Cisplatin chemotherapy

E) Cetumixab therapy

25) Which of the following might you expect to see on the ECG of a patient with hypocalcaemia?

A) Peaked T waves

B) Delta Wave

C) Prolonged PR

D) ST elevation

E) Long QT

26)

A 28 year old women undergoes transvaginal ultrasound scan (TVS) at the EPU. What size is the
gestational sac typically when the yolk sac becomes visible on TVS?

A) 3mm

B) 5mm

C) 10mm

D) 16mm

E) 20mm

27) Which of the following is a form of non‐ionising radiation?

A) X‐RAY

B) DEXA

C) Iodine 131

D) CT

E) LASER

28) Which of the following statements, if any, regarding diathermy (electrosurgery) is true?

A) Frequencies above 200 KHz should not be used due to risk of electrocution

B) Plates must be properly adhered or inadequate current will be generated and will impede cutting

C) Diathermy utilises frequencies of 50‐100 KHz

D) Plates must be properly adhered to prevent local burns

E) None of the above

29)

In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal
ultrasound?

A) 4 weeks

B) 4 weeks + 3 days

C) 5 weeks

D) 5 weeks + 3 days

E) 7 weeks

30) Ultrasound frequencies are sound waves with frequencies of

A) < 2 Hz

B) < 20 Hz

C) 20 Hz to 20 KHz

D) > 20 Hz

E) > 20 KHz

31) Piezoelectric crystal resonance is used in what imaging modality?

A) PET

B) CAT scan

C) MRI

D) X‐ray

E) Ultrasound

32) With regard to MRI scanning what is the SI unit measure of magnetic field strength?

A) Weber

B) Tesla

C) Coulomb

D) Ampere

E) Gauss

33)

A 28 year old women presents for an early scan at the EPU. On TVS what size is the gestational
sac when the embryonic pole should become visible?

A) 3mm

B) 6mm

C) 9mm

D) 12mm

E) 16mm

34)

In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on transvaginal
ultrasound?

A) 4 weeks

B) 4 weeks + 3 days

C) 5 weeks

D) 5 weeks + 3 days

E) 6 weeks

35)

A patient undergoes LASER treatment for CIN. Which of the following is the most appropriate
choice of LASER?

A) Argon

B) CO2

C) Nd YAG

D) Neodynium

E) Diode

36) Which of the following best describes magnetic resonance imaging?

A) Utilise a piezoelectric transducer to generate a field

B) Utilises a radiofrequency pulse to alter the spin of protons

C) Utilises ionising radiation

D) Typically uses Klystron tubes to generate EM waves with a frequency of 0.3 to 300 GHz

E) Involves a gain medium that stimulates emission of electromagnetic radiation

37) What is the typical magnetic field strength of an MRI scanner used routinely in UK hospitals?

A) 0.1 ‐ 0.5 T

B) 0.2 ‐1.0 T

C) 1.5 ‐ 3.0 T

D) 3.0 ‐ 15.0 T

E) 9.4 ‐ 15.0 T

38) What frequency is used for trans‐vaginal ultrasound?

A) 3.0 MHz

B) 7.0 MHz

C) 10.0 MHz

D) 15.0 MHz

E) 25 MHz

39)

You assess a 68 year old lady who has been admitted with heavy PV bleeding. She has known
heart failure. In A&E she had 1 litre of IV Saline 0.9% over 1 hour and her second litre bag of IV
saline is almost empty. You assess her JVP. Which of the following would you expect to see in
someone with heart failure and fluid overload?

A) Elevated JVP normal waveform

B) Kussmaul's sign

C) Cannon A waves

D) Paradoxical JVP

E) Absent A waves

40) Regarding the ECG, what does the QRS complex represent?

A) Atrial depolarisation

B) Atrial repolarisation

C) Ventricular depolarisation

D) Ventricular repolarisation

E) Repolarisation of the interventricular septum

41) Regarding the ECG, what does the T wave represent?

A) Atrial depolarisation

B) Atrial repolarisation

C) Ventricular depolarisation

D) Ventricular repolarisation

E) Repolarisation of the interventricular septum

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