operative vaginal delivery -Labor anddelivery part2
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30year oldwoman collapsed on the ward following an uneventful Kjelland's forceps delivery. Her Hb dropped from 12.0 to 6.0 despite no bleeding per vaginum.
A low-risk 27-year-old woman is induced at 41+5 weeks gestation in her second pregnancy, having had a previous ventouse delivery for fetal distress. She has epidural analgesia for pain relief in labour. Following confirmation of full cervical dilatation and an hour of passive second stage, she pushes with contractions for 90 minutes without signs of imminent birth. She feels well, her contractions are strong, 4 in 10 minutes and the fetal heart rate is normal. What is the most appropriate management?
A gravida 2 para 1 (previous normal vaginal delivery) is in prolonged labour. No pole is palpable per abdomen. Vaginal findings – vertex at + 1 station, LOA, caput ++ over occiput. CTG shows deep variable decelerations. There is poor pushing in spite of good contractions due to maternal exhaustion
A 29-year-old woman at term is admitted in spontaneous labour and progresses to being fully dilated. She has been actively pushing for 90 minutes. On abdominal examination there is 0/5th of the head palpable. Vaginal examination reveals the position is left occipitotransverse, and there is evidence moulding of 1and caput 2. The station is 1 below the ischial spines.
A gravida 2 para 1 (previous normal vaginal delivery) has gestational diabetes and is on insulin. She was induced at 38 weeks of gestation. The baby is large for dates. The second stage has lasted 2.5 hours, and she has been pushing since she was fully dilated. The CTG shows deep early decelerations. Two fifths pole are palpable per abdomen. Vaginal findings – vertex at +1 station, LOT, slightly deflexed, caput ++
You were asked to see a 29-year-old nulliparous woman in the active second stage of labour, pushing for about an hour and exhausted, asking for a caesarean section. She was induced at 38 weeks for type 1 diabetes and suspected macrosomia. She is contracting 4 in 10 minutes and the CTG is normal. Per abdomen, 0/5th head was palpable and you have confirmed full dilatation, absent membranes, right occipito-posterior (ROP) position with the vertex at spines and descent to +1 during pushing. What is the most appropriate management plan?
A 28yearold woman had an episiotomy performed following a forceps delivery. She has complained of a painful lump
You are called to see a 31 year old G2P1 with previous baby delivered by spontaneous vaginal delivery with no complications. You are asked to see her because of CTG abnormalities. The CTG shows baseline rate 170bpm, reduced variability for the last 30min and short lasting early decelerations. On vaginal examination, the cervix is found to be 10 cm dilated. It was 6 cm 2 hours ago. The vertex is at the level of the ischial spine, in occipito anterior position and there is 1+ caput and no moulding. The liquor is significantly meconium stained.
You are called to see a primiparous woman in second stage of labour. She is 39 weeks pregnant and was fully dilated 1 hour ago. She is having irregular contractions every 4 minutes. The CTG is satisfactory. Vaginal examination shows the vertex to be in left occipito posterior position, at the level of the ischial spines. There is no caput or moulding.
You are the Labour Ward specialty trainee called to assess a multiparous woman in labour at 42 weeks of gestation. Fetal membranes ruptured prior to the onset of contractions 12 hours ago. Full dilatation was diagnosed 2 hours ago and there has been no descent of the fetal head despite 1.5 hours of active pushing. Diamorphine was given for analgesia 3 hours ago. Your examination reveals that the fetus is in cephalic presentation with 2/5 of the head palpable abdominally. You confirm full dilatation. The fetus is in the direct occipito–posterior position with a caput of 2+ and
moulding of 1+. The presenting part is at station 1. The fetal CTG is reassuring. What is the most appropriate management, given the above findings?
You are called to see a 22 year old G2P1 who has not delivered after 1 hour of effective pushing. On vaginal examination, the fetal mouth, nose and the orbital ridges can easily be felt. The chin of the foetus can also be felt and it is pointing towards the symphysis pubis of the mother. The presenting part is about 2 cm below the ischial spines. The CTG is satisfactory
You were asked to see a para 2 woman in spontaneous labour at term who has been in the active second stage of labour for more than an hour and has maternal exhaustion. She is contracting 4–5 in 10 minutes and the cardiotocograph (CTG) is normal. Abdominal examination reveals that the head is not palpable per abdomen. She presents a fully dilated cervix, absent membranes, with a left occipitoanterior position with the vertex at +1 station. You have decided to proceed with an operative vaginal delivery with the woman’s consent. Which one of the operative vaginal deliveries would you be performing at this stage?
A gravida 2 para 1 (previous normal vaginal delivery) is now in spontaneous labour. There is normal progress to cervical dilatation of 7 cm, then 6 hours to full dilatation
Contractions are two in 10. No fetal head is palpable per abdomen. The head is at the spines and is in the direct OP position. The CTG is normal
A primigravida woman with a history of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura has been in the second stage of labour for 2 hours and actively pushing for 1 hour. No pole is palpable per abdomen. The vertex is at +2 station, ROA, no caput, no moulding
A primigravida is in spontaneous preterm labour at 35 + 1 weeks of gestation. She has progressed satisfactorily in labour and has been pushing for ten minutes. Fifteen minutes prior to pushing, a fetal blood sampling had been performed due to a suspicious CTG and the result was normal. You have been asked to attend as the CTG shows prolonged bradycardia. You are not able to feel the fetal head abdominally and the vertex is at +2 station and is less than 45∘ from the occipito-anterior position.What is the most appropriate course of action?
15)
A 32-year-old woman in her first pregnancy has had a low-cavity forceps delivery for prolonged second stage under spinal anaesthesia. After delivery she is noted to have excessive vaginal bleeding. On examination she is noted to have excessive blood loss and to appear pale. The pulse is noted to be 110 beats/minute and blood pressure 120/70mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals that the uterus is well contracted. Examination of the placenta confirms it to be complete.
A 29-year-old woman at term is admitted in spontaneous labour and progresses to being fully dilated. The woman has been actively pushing for 60 minutes. On abdominal examination the head is 0/5th palpable. Vaginal examination by the midwife has been unable to determine the position. The station is at the level of the ischial spines.
What type of morbidity is less likely to be associated with vacuum extraction than with forceps delivery?
A primigravida has been in the second stage of labour for 3 hours, and has been pushing for 2 hours. The head is onefifth palpable. Vaginal findings – vertex is at +1 station, ROP with caput +, moulding +. The CTG is reassuring
A 42 year old G1P0 is seen on the labour ward rounds. Labour has progressed well and she has been fully dilated for 2 hours and pushing for the last 1 hour. There is no palpable head on abdominal examination. Vaginal examination shows the vertex to be in left occipito anterior position and at 1cm below the ischial spines. There is 1 + of caput and no moulding. The CTG is normal. She conceived by IVF after trying for 6 yrs.
A 24 year old G3P2 with one previous caesarean section followed by a successful vaginal birth is seen on the labour ward at second stage of labour. She is 41 weeks pregnant and her labour has progressed well in the first stage up to 8cm. Subsequently it took her 5 hours to progress from 8cm to full dilatation. She has been pushing effectively for1 hour. On examination there is a fifth of the fetal head palpable abdominally. On vaginal examination the vertex is in occipito transverse position with 2 + of caput and reducible moulding. The vertex is at the level of the ischial spines and the CTG is satisfactory.
A 28 year old G2P1 is in spontaneous labour at 41 weeks gestation. She is having 4 contractions every 10 min and on examination the cervix is fully dilated and vertex is at +1 and occipito anterior position. She had spontaneous rupture of membrane while doing the vaginal examination and cord is felt.
Sequential use of instruments increases neonatal trauma.By what factor is the incidence of subdural and intracranial haem- orrhage increased in this situation?
25 year old, who is 40 weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy, is in the second stage of labour. She has been actively pushing for 1 h. CTG shows a baseline of 180 bpm, reduced baseline variability, no accelerations and frequent atypical vari- able decelerations. She is contracting 3–4 every 10 min. Vaginal examination reveals a fully dilated cervix with the fetal head in a direct occipito-anterior position and at station +1 below spines. Which of the following is the most appropriate next man- agement step?
A 29-year-old woman at term is admitted in spontaneous labour and has progressed to being fully dilated. She has been actively pushing for 60 minutes. On abdominal examination the head is 0/5th palpable. Vaginal examination reveals the position is direct occipitoanterior, there is no caput and moulding, and the station is 2 below the ischial spines.
You were asked to see a 29-year-old nulliparous woman in the active second stage of labour, pushing for about an hour and exhausted, asking for a caesarean section. She was induced at 38 weeks for type 1 diabetes and suspected macrosomia. She is contracting 4 in 10 minutes and the CTG is normal. Per abdomen, 0/5th head was palpable and you have confirmed full dilatation, absent membranes, right occipito-posterior (ROP) position with the vertex at spines and descent to +1 during pushing.
26) What is the most appropriate management plan?
A 34 year old G2P1 is in the 2nd stage of labour. She is 33+4 weeks gestation. On examination, the vertex is at +1 and Left occipito transverse position. CTG is abnormal.
A 30 year old woman in her second pregnancy at 40 weeks gestation has progressed well in labour and has been effectively pushing for the last 90 mins. She was fully dilated 2 and half hours ago. There is no palpable head on abdominal examination. Vaginal examination shows the vertex to be in occipito anterior position and at 2cm below the ischial spines. There is 3 + of caput and no moulding. The CTG is showing late decelerations. Her first baby was delivered by spontaneous vaginal delivery.
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